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级别: 初级博友

楼主发表于: 2007-04-13

发考博士考卷

中国科学院
博士研究生入学考试
英语试卷
2005年3月
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考生须知:

一、本试卷由试卷一 (PAPER ONE) 和试卷二 (PAPER TWO) 两部分组成。试卷一为客观题，答卷使用标准化机读答题纸；试卷二为主观题，答卷使用普通答题纸。

二、请考生一律用HB或2B铅笔填涂标准化机读答题纸，划线不得过细或过短。修改时请用橡皮擦拭干净。若因填涂不符合要求而导致计算机无法识别，责任由考生自负。请保持机读答题纸清洁、无折皱。

五、全部考试时间总计180分钟，满分为100分。时间及分值分布如下：

试卷一：
I 听力 20 分钟 20 分
II 词汇 15 分钟 10 分
III完型填空 15 分钟 15 分
IV 阅读 60 分钟 30 分
小计 110分钟 75 分

试卷二：
V 英译汉 30 分钟 10 分
VI写作 40 分钟 15 分
小计 70 分钟 25 分

CHINESE ACADEMY OF SCIENCES
ENGLISH ENTRANCE EXAMINATION FOR DOCTORAL CANDIDATES
March 2005
PAPER ONE
PART I LISTENING COMPREHENSION (20 minutes, 20 points)
Section A (10 points, 1 point each)
Directions: In this section, you will hear ten short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversation, a question will be asked about what was said. The question will be spoken only once. Choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your Machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

1. A. He needs more fresh air.
B. He is willing to go out.
C. He is too sick to go out.
D. He opened the window.

2. A. Their friends.
B. Daily activities.
C. Past experiences.
D. Historical events.

3. A. To buy a ticket.
B. To pay a fee.
C. To pay back a debt.
D. To buy a gift.

4. A. Give information.
B. State preferences.
C. Ask permission.
D. Attract attention.

5. A. In a gymnasium.
B. In an art exhibition.
C. In a shop.
D. In a hotel.

6. A. 19 dollars each.
B. 38 dollars each.
C. 30 dollars altogether.
D. 36 dollars altogether.

7. A. Jack is a gentleman.
B. Jack does everything right.
C. Jack is a desirable husband.
D. Jack behaves immaturely sometimes.

8. A. It was remarkable to both the man and the woman.
B. It was not suitable for the woman.
C. The man hated this kind of movie.
D. The woman complained about its quality.

9. A. See how much the jacket is.
B. See if the jacket there is blue.
C. See if there is a cell phone in the jacket.
D. See if there was anything turned in this morning.

10. A. The man has caught a cold.
B. The woman was caught in a rainstorm.
C. The weather forecast was inaccurate.
D. It rained very heavily.

Section B (10 points, 1 point each)
Directions: In this section, you will hear three short talks. At the end of each talk, there will be a few questions. Both the talk and the questions will be read to you only once. After each question, there will be a pause. During the pause, you must choose the best answer from the four choices given by marking the corresponding letter with a single bar across the square brackets on your Machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

Questions 11-13 are based on Talk 1.
11. A. Language comes from physical labor.
B. Language learning is a long-term endeavor.
C. Language reflects history.
D. Language study is very important.

12. A. Constructing a wheel.
B. Making a choice.
C. Coming back.
D. Turning around.

13. A. The overthrow of a class.
B. The overthrow of a tyrant.
C. The overthrow of a belief.
D. The overthrow of an act.

Questions 14-17 are based on Talk 2.
14. A. It’s a wonderful idea.
B. It’s not a smart thing to do.
C. It’s too difficult to put into practice.
D. It’s interesting to the decision maker.

15. A. Telling people about your degrees.
B. Promising that you will make good achievements.
C. Introducing your job responsibilities.
D. Talking about the needs of the potential employer.

16. A. The results which your potential boss wants to gain with your assistance.
B. The results of making more money on an international market.
C. The results that the employer has seen in the past.
D. The results that your potential boss does not want to see.

17. A. Proving that you are capable of doing the job.
B. Seeking the position that is not too high or too low for you.
C. Insisting that experience is more important than knowledge.
D. Claiming that you are better than any other applicant.

Questions 18-20 are based on Talk 3.
18. A. They exercise dogs twice a day.
B. They learn how to be responsible for dogs.
C. They encourage dogs to go for long walks.
D. They like dogs too much to care about other things.

19. A. Working for the police.
B. Relaxing with other dogs.
C. Protecting businesses.
D. Guiding the blind.

20. A. Dogs ride in public transport.
B. Dogs bite their owners when in a rage.
C. Vehicles run over stray dogs.
D. People always keep dogs on leads.
PART II VOCABULARY (15 minutes, 10 points, 0.5 point each)
Directions: Choose the word or expression below each sentence that best completes the statement, and mark the corresponding letter of your choice with a single bar across the square brackets on your Machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

21. Giorgio, now fifteen, and Lucia, also in her teens, were reaching the _______ of their adolescence.
A. crisis B. criterion C. causality D. credibility

22. At first Jackie prayed, frozen in fear, but gradually his terror _______ curiosity.
A. put up with B. lived up to C. did away with D. gave way to

23. The International Olympic Committee rejects the accusations that Beijing’s budget-cutting move might _______ its preparation for the games.
A. degrade B. deliberate C. deploy D. defend

24. You are not allowed to take a second job _______ your employer gives you permission.
A. so long as B. otherwise C. unless D. whereas

25. They continued to _______ about and enjoy themselves until they became tired.
A. stroke B. stroll C. stammer D. string

26. The survey asked 750 school children about the values and beliefs they _______ from television.
A. pick up B. take up C. put up D. make up

27. I am grateful for your _______ invitation, and I’d like to accept your offer with pleasure.
A. delighted B. innocent C. gracious D. prestigious

28. I must _______ you farewell right now, but on some future occasion, I hope to see you again.
A. relay B. bid C. send D. deliver

29. Perhaps my dishes will not be as delicious as those which you are accustomed to eating, but I beg you to grant my _______ and have dinner with me.
A. resentment B. requirement C. request D. reservation

30. That singular achievement was not just about Korea’s arrival as a football force but as a self-confident mature nation to be ________ seriously.
A. coped B. shown C. established D. taken

31. Europe as a _______ unit did little by itself; it either sent for US help, or each European government acted on its own.
A. incidental B. apparent C. cohesive D. descendent

32. On 9 December, James Joyce experienced one of those coincidences which affected him _______ at the time and which later became material for his books.
A. inadequately B. systematically C. profoundly D. simultaneously

33. Embarrassed, I nodded, trying to think of some way to _______ my error.
A. make do with B. make up for C. go in for D. go along with

34. Furthermore, if I were to leave him, he would _______, for he cannot endure to be separated from me for more than one hour.
A. prevail B. preside C. perish D. persecute

35. With high hopes, the company sent samples of the substance to scientists, but they couldn’t _______ any practical uses for it.
A. come up with B. do justice to C. get even with D. look up to

36. He signed a new contract with the Dublin firm, Maunsel & Company, on more favorable _______ than those Grant Richards had given him.
A. items B. terms C. articles D. specifications

37. Most scientists agree this outpouring contributes to global warming, which could eventually lead to coastal flooding, _______ weather, and widespread crop loss.
A. intensive B. extreme C. unpleased D. unique

38. There was a quick turnover of staff in the department as the manager treated his employees with _______ contempt.
A. utter B. sole C. intimate D. corresponding

39. The source, who spoke on condition of anonymity, _______ to discuss the implication of that conclusion.
A. receded B. implied C. complied D. declined

40. Childhood can be a time of great insecurity and loneliness, during which the need to be accepted by peers _______ great significance.
A. takes on B. works out C. brings about D. gives in

PART III CLOZE TEST (15 minutes, 15 points)
Directions: There are 15 blanks in the following passage. Read the passage through. Then, go back and choose the most suitable of the words or phrases marked A, B, C, and D for each blank in the passage. Mark the corresponding letter of the word or phrase you have chosen with a single bar across the square brackets on your Machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

Can exercise be a bad thing? Sudden death during or soon after strenuous exertion on the squash court or on the army training grounds, is not unheard of. 41 trained marathon runners are not immune to fatal heart attacks. But no one knows just 42 common these sudden deaths linked to exercise are. The registration and investigation of such 43 is very patchy; only a national survey could determine the true 44 of sudden deaths in sports. But the climate of medical opinion is shifting in 45 of exercise, for the person recovering from a heart attack as 46 as the average lazy individual. Training can help the victim of a heart attack by lowering the 47 of oxygen the heart needs at any given level of work 48 the patient can do more before reaching the point where chest pains indicate a heart starved of oxygen. The question is, should middle-aged people, 49 particular, be screened for signs of heart disease before 50 vigorous exercise?
Most cases of sudden death in sport are caused by lethal arrhythmias in the beating of the heart, often in people 51 undiagnosed coronary heart disease. In North America 52 over 35 is advised to have a physical check-up and even an exercise electrocardiogram. The British, on the whole, think all this testing is unnecessary. Not many people die from exercise, 53 , and ECGs（心电图）are notoriously inaccurate. However, two medical cardiologists at the Victoria Infirmary in Glasgow, advocate screening by exercise ECG for people over 40, or younger people 54 at risk of developing coronary heart disease. Individuals showing a particular abnormality in their ECGs 55 , they say, a 10 to 20 times greater risk of subsequently developing signs of coronary heart disease, or of sudden death.

41. A. Then B. Though C. Since D. Even
42. A. why B. how C. if D. what
43. A. runners B. exercises C. patients D. cases
44. A. initiation B. evidence C. incidence D. indication
45. A. favor B. positive C. inclination D. bias
46. A. good B. well C. much D. far
47. A. weight B. amount C. degree D. quality
48. A. however B. because C. but D. so
49. A. at B. to C. for D. in
50. A. taking up B. trying on C. getting over D. doing with
51. A. beyond B. by C. with D. of
52. A. anyone B. none C. some D. nobody
53. A. of course B. at all C. after all D. by far
54. A. readily B. suddenly C. already D. ready
55. A. having B. had C. having been D. have

PART IV READING COMPREHENSION (60 minutes, 30 points)
Directions: You will read five passages in this part of the test. Below each passage there are some questions or incomplete statements. Each question or statement is followed by four choices marked A, B, C, and D. Read the passage carefully, and then select the choice that best answers the question or completes the statement. Mark the letter of your choice with a single bar across the square brackets on your Machine-scoring Answer Sheet.

Passage 1

I myself first saw Samarkand from a rise across a wilderness of crumbling ruins and great graveyards which lie between it and the airport. Suddenly we caught a glimpse of painted towers and the great blue domes of mosques and tombs shouldering the full weight of the sky among bright green trees and gardens. Beyond the gardens and the glittering domes still were those watchful mountains and their evocative snow. I found myself thinking of the thrill I had on catching my first sight of Damascus after crossing the desert from Syria. The light, the orchards and many of the trees were the same but deeper still was the sense of coming into contact with one of the most astonishing cultures in history, the world of the one and only Allah and his prophet Muhammad. It was a world that completely overawed me.
Yet the memory of Samarkand which stays with me most clearly is quite a humble one. Coming back to the city from the country on my last evening we passed some unusual elm trees and I stopped to have a look at them. They were, my guide told me, perhaps a thousand years old, older certainly than Genghis Khan. A flock of fat-tailed sheep (the same kind of sheep that my own ancestors saw a Hottentot keeping when they landed at the Cape of Good Hope 321 years ago), tended by some Tadshik children, moved slowly home in the distance. Then from the city came quite clearly the call to prayer from mosque and minaret. I had not expected any calls at all and it made no difference that some of the calls came over loud-speakers. Then beyond the trees an old man appeared on a donkey, dismounted, spread a prayer mat on the ground, and kneeling towards Mecca, he began to pray.
From Samarkand I journeyed on to Bokhara which was once the holiest city in Central Asia. At one time it possessed over a hundred religious colleges and close to four hundred mosques. It drew adventurers of all races towards it as it did Marco Polo. Not many of them reached their destination. These days at what used to be one of the richest market places in the world, one buys ice-cream instead of slaves; watches and mass-produced trinkets and fizzy drinks instead of gold, silks and turquoise jewellery. Few of the four hundred mosques remain and most have vanished without even leaving a trace.

56. Samarkand lies ________.
A. in a desert
B. high in the mountains
C. in front of Damascus
D. between the mountains and the airport

57. The author said that he was overawed by ________.
A. the beauty of the scene
B. the sight of Damascus
C. the age of the place
D. the world of Allah and Muhammad

58. The author refers to his clearest memory of Samarkand as “humble” because ________.
A. it was an ordinary scene that he remembered
B. it was his last night in the city and his last memory
C. the elm trees were older than Genghis Khan
D. the trees looked impressive in the evening light

59. The author says that the sheep he saw were similar to ________.
A. the ones his ancestors had kept
B. the ones that lived in his own country
C. those his ancestors had seen at the Cape of Good Hope
D. those his ancestors had taken to the Cape of Good Hope

60. The author was surprised to hear the calls to prayer because ________.
A. he was far away from the city, yet he could hear them clearly
B. he did not think there would be any calls
C. the calls came from the mosques
D. the calls were no different over loud-speakers

61. The market has changed in character because now ________.
A. it does sell jewellery
B. the holy men do not sell there
C. it sells goods for tourists and items of little value
D. the traders have disappeared because it is too dangerous to sell there

Passage 2
The component of the healthy personality that is the first to develop is the sense of trust. As with other personality components, the sense of trust is not something that develops independent of other manifestations of growth. It is not that infants learn how to use their bodies for purposeful movement, learn to recognize people and objects around them, and also develop a sense of trust. Rather, the concept “sense of trust” is a shortcut expression intended to convey the characteristic flavor of all the child’s satisfying experiences at this early age.
Studies of mentally ill individuals and observations of infants who have been grossly deprived of affection suggest that trust is an early-formed and important element in the healthy personality. Psychiatrists find again and again that the most serious illnesses occur in patients who have been sorely neglected or abused or otherwise deprived of love in infancy.
Observations of infants brought up in emotionally unfavorable institutions or moved to hospitals with inadequate facilities for psychological care support these findings. A recent report says that “Infants under 5 months of age who have been in an institution for some time present a well-defined picture. The outstanding features are listlessness, relative immobility, quietness, poor sleep, an appearance of unhappiness, etc.” Another investigation of children separated from their mothers at 6 to 12 months and not provided with an adequate substitute comes to much the same conclusion.
Most significant for our present point, these reactions are most likely to occur in children who, up to the time of separation at 6 to 9 months of age, had a happy relation with their mothers, while those whose relations were unhappy are relatively unaffected. It is at about this age that the struggle between trusting and mistrusting the world comes to a climax, for it is then that children first perceive clearly that they and their environment are things apart. That at this point formerly happy infants should react so badly to separation suggests, indeed, that they had a faith that now has been shattered.
In most primitive societies and in some sections of our own society, the attention accorded infants is more in line with natural processes. Throughout infancy the baby is surrounded by people who are ready to feed it, fondle it, and otherwise comfort it at a moment’s notice. Moreover, these ministrations are given spontaneously and wholeheartedly, and without that element of nervous concern that may characterize the efforts of young mothers made self-conscious and insecure by our scientific age.
We must not exaggerate, however. Most infants in our society too find smiles and comfort. As their own bodies come to be more dependable, there is added to the pleasures of increasing sensory response and motor control the pleasure of the mothers’ encouragement. Then, too, psychologists tell us that mothers create a sense of trust in their children not by the particular techniques they employ but by the sensitiveness with which they respond to the children’s needs and by their overall attitude.
62. The sense of trust in an infant is under development when ________.
A. the infant experiences some satisfaction
B. adults’ trust is adequate
C. the infant learns how to move
D. the infant is surrounded by people he can recognize
63. The author raises evidence of mental illness and other disorders in children ________.
A. to introduce a discussion of the effect of institutions on children
B. to show the effect on children of an unhappy relation with their mothers during infancy
C. to warn parents of the dangers of neglecting and abusing their children
D. to support the point that trust is an early formed and important element of a healthy personality

64. Babies might mistrust the world if ________.
A. they did not receive food when they were hungry
B. they mastered their body movements too quickly
C. someone came too close to them
D. they saw an object disappear

65. The climax in the development of a sense of trust occurs ________.
A. before maternal affection is provided
B. when a child perceives that he or she is separate from the environment
C. when a child successfully controls his or her muscular coordination
D. as a result of maternal separation

66. A possible reason that a child having an unhappy relation with his/her mother will not be affected by maternal separation at 6 to 9 months is that ________.
A. the struggle between trusting and mistrusting has reached a climax
B. the child sees himself/herself as being separate from the environment
C. the child’s sense of trust is destroyed
D. no sense of trust has ever developed

67. According to this passage, the most important factor in developing a sense of trust is ________.
A. the type of techniques used by the mother
B. the sensitivity of the child
C. maternal love
D. the combined effect of natural feeling and cultural attitudes

68. How can mothers create a sense of trust in a child?
A. By showing confidence and experience in front of the child.
B. By applying techniques taught by psychologists.
C. By showing the child that the mother is understanding of his/her wants.
D. By offering smiles and comforts.
Passage 3
I saw a television advertisement recently for a new product called an air sanitizer. A woman stood in her kitchen, spraying the empty space in front of her as though using Mace against an imaginary assailant. She appeared very determined. Where others are satisfied with antibacterial-laced sponges, dish soaps, hand sanitizers and telephone wipes, here was a woman who sought to sterilize the air itself.
As a casual student of microbiology, I find it hard to escape the absurdity here. This woman is, like any human being, home to hundreds of trillions of bacteria. Bacteria make up a solid third, by weight, of the contents of her intestines. If you were to sneak into her bathroom while she was showering - and based on my general impression of this woman from the advertisement, I don't recommend this - and secret away a teaspoon of the water at her feet, you would find some 820 billion bacteria. Bacteria are unavoidably, inevitably - and, usually, utterly benignly - a part of our world.
The fantasy of a germ-free home is not only absurd, but it is also largely pointless. Unless you share your home with someone very old, very young (under 6 months) or very ill, the few hundred bacteria on a countertop, doorknob or spoon pose no threat. The bacteria that cause food poisoning, the only significant rational bacterial worry in the average home, need to multiply into the thousands or millions before they can overwhelm your immune system and cause symptoms.
The only way common food poisoning bacteria can manage this is to spend four or five hours reproducing at room temperature in something moist that you then eat. If you are worried about food poisoning, the best defense is the refrigerator. If you don't make a habit of eating perishable food that has been left out too long, don't worry about bacteria.
Viruses are slightly different. You need only pick up a few virus particles to infect yourself with a cold or flu, and virus particles can survive on surfaces for days. So disinfecting the surfaces in the home should, in theory, reduce the chances of picking up a bug.
In practice, the issue is less clear. A study by Dr. Elaine Larson at the Columbia School of Nursing called into question the usefulness of antibacterial products for the home. In New York, 224 households, each with at least one preschooler, were randomly assigned to two groups. One group used antibacterial cleaning, laundry and hand-washing products. The other used ordinary products. For 48 weeks, the groups were monitored for seven symptoms of colds, flu and food poisoning - and found to be essentially the same. According to Dr. Gerba's research, an active adult touches an average of 300 surfaces every 30 minutes. You cannot win at this. You will become obsessive-compulsive. Just wash your hands with soap and water a few times a day, and leave it at that.
69. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. We don’t need to worry too much about bacteria everywhere in our life.
B. Antibacterial products for the home are found to be effective.
C. The TV advertisement the writer mentioned is a total failure.
D. The existent bacteria pose a threat only to the very young and very old.

70. We can infer from Paragraph 3 that _______.
A. healthy people should live separately from unhealthy members of the family
B. a germ-free home is not only possible, but significant
C. unless you live with the vulnerable, it is pointless to sterilize the air
D. our immune systems are too weak to fight against the food poisoning bacteria

71. In the first sentence of Paragraph 4, “…manage this” means “to manage the process of _______.”
A. killing the bacteria in your body
B. multiplying to a significantly large number
C. raising the room temperature
D. sterilizing the perishable food

72. According to the author, if you want to keep healthy, you had better _______.
A. make the room dry
B. keep the food in the refrigerator
C. wash your hands as much as possible
D. clean the surfaces with anti-bacterial products

73. From Paragraph 5 the author emphasizes _______.
A. the danger of viruses
B. the common existence of virus particles
C. the short life span of viruses
D. the difficulty in killing viruses

74. The word “bug” used in Paragraph 5 means _______.
A. a bacterium
B. a cold
C. a flu
D. a virus

75. According to the author, one will become obsessive-compulsive
A. if he washes his hands every time he touches a surface.
B. if he only washes his hands with soap and water.
C. if he could not win over the bacteria in his home.
D. if he does not fight against the bacteria at home.
Passage 4

Until recently the halls of North High in Minneapolis were lined with vending machines where students could buy soda pop and other sugary drinks, as they can in most other high schools in the nation. But with rates of childhood obesity sky-rocketing, the Minneapolis school district worried about pushing pop. The district needed a way to keep its lucrative vending contract with Coca-Cola while steering kids toward more healthful beverages.
Bryan Bass, North’s assistant principal, took the challenge. He stocked 12 of North’s 16 vending machines only with water, priced at 75 cents a bottle. Three machines dispensed juice and sports drinks for $1. Only one sold soft drinks, at $1.25 per can. "We located the water machines strategically outside our buildings, so when you come out of a classroom what you see is a water machine," says Bass. "We also decided to allow water in classrooms but not juice or pop." The result? Profits from the vending machines nearly tripled, from $4,500 to $11,000 in two years. They're now in their third year, and says Bass: “Water has become ‘cool.’”
North’s success demonstrates what many obesity experts and parents believe: Kids will learn to make healthful food and drink choices if they have access to them and are motivated to do so. “Price is a powerful motivator,” says Simone French of the University of Minnesota, an expert on school-based obesity prevention. She’s impressed with North’s efforts, but she says the problem is implementing these strategies throughout society. “Obesity is the biggest health issue facing kids, and we've got to do more.”
How to do more was outlined last week in the Institute of Medicine’s 460-page action plan, mandated by Congress, on “Preventing Childhood Obesity.” Chaired by Emory University’s Jeffrey Koplan, the plan is the first comprehensive look at childhood obesity and what government, industry, schools, communities, families, and medical professionals can do to reduce its impact. “I think this is similar in importance to the first Surgeon General’s Report on Smoking and Health in 1964,” Koplan says. That landmark document led to the health warning on cigarette packages and a ban on cigarette advertising on TV.
76. In most American high schools, selling soft drinks is ________.
A. encouraged
B. allowed
C. unlawful
D. unprofitable

77. Water has become “cool” in the Minneapolis school district partly because ________.
A. water is provided free
B. most kids can afford nothing but water
C. water machines are put in noticeable positions
D. children have realized the harm of sugary drinks
78. We can infer that in terms of healthful drinks for kids, Simone French and some other experts are ________.
A. confident about children’s choices
B. pessimistic about the future
C. puzzled about which approach to take
D. worried about how to motivate children

79. By mentioning the 1964 report on smoking, Jeffrey Koplan implied that ________.
A. more children tend to smoke today than yesterday
B. both obesity and smoking require the attention of schools and society.
C. the present plan on obesity would function similarly as a landmark.
D. obesity and smoking are both health problems.

80. The primary purpose of this passage is to ________.
A. report facts
B. call for action
C. argue for a new perspective
D. condemn a social phenomenon

Passage 5
For decades many U.S. veterans who took part in atmospheric nuclear tests have wondered whether their exposure to radiation might ultimately cost them their lives. Their private fears became a public issue in 1976 after a veteran claimed his leukemia was caused by radiation from a 1957 test series.
The atomic veterans and their families, as well as researchers and policy-makers, continue to struggle for definitive answers. These have been elusive, at least in part, because a crucial piece of information has been difficult to get --the radiation dose that each individual received.
In the largest study to date, researchers from the Institute of Medicine (IOM) have come up with some partial answers. But they too were limited in their ability to draw conclusions by the lack of usable information on radiation exposure.
The new study focused on participants in five series of nuclear tests, all of which took place either in the Nevada desert or the South Pacific. Nearly 70,000 soldiers, sailors, airmen, and marines were involved in at least one of these, and about 30 percent of them have now died. For comparison, researchers selected a group of 65,000 military people serving at the same time under similar conditions, except that they did not take part in nuclear tests.
After an intensive review of service and death records, researchers found no difference between the two groups in overall death rates or in total deaths from cancer. Had there been a dramatic radiation effect, it would have shown up in this comparison.
The researchers also analyzed specific causes of death, including diseases linked in other studies to radiation. Here there were some differences. Among the nuclear test veterans, 14 percent more died from leukemia than those in the comparison group, although the difference lacked statistical significance and could have resulted from chance.
When comparisons were made based on whether the veterans participated in nuclear tests in Nevada or in the Pacific Ocean, the differences were sharper: a 50 percent higher leukemia death rate among Nevada atomic veterans than among the comparison group. This was not true among Pacific test participants, who actually had a slightly lower, though not statistically significant leukemia death rate than those in their comparison group.
81. The passage tells us that researchers wish that they could find out ________.
A. when and where the veterans received the nuclear radiation
B. why the amount of radiation cannot be accurately measured
C. who was responsible for the veterans’ deaths
D. how much radiation each veteran got during the nuclear tests

82. The latest study includes a comparison made between ________.
A. healthy veterans and unhealthy veterans
B. nuclear test participants and those with no radiation exposure
C. the veterans who are still alive and those who have died
D. people who died of cancer and people who took part in atomic tests

83. What can we learn about the result of the latest study?
A. There was a significant difference in total deaths from cancer between the two groups.
B. There was no significant difference in death rates between the two groups.
C. The comparison group has a lower death rate.
D. More veterans died from leukemia than from other cancers.

84. One comparison mentioned in the last paragraph was made between ________.
A. Pacific test participants and those who undertook the Nevada test
B. Nevada atomic veterans and those who didn’t take part in any nuclear tests
C. Veterans in Nevada and Pacific atomic tests and the comparison group
D. half of Nevada test participants and half of the group of no test participants

85. How different is the group of Nevada test participants from their South Pacific counterparts?
A. The former shows a higher leukemia death rate than the comparison group.
B. The former shows a lower leukemia death rate than the comparison group.
C. The former shows a higher death rate than the latter.
D. The former shows a lower death rate than the latter.
PAPER TWO
PART V TRANSLATION (30 minutes, 10 points)
Directions: Read the following text carefully and then translate the underlined words into Chinese. Write your translation on Answer Sheet II.

On December 11, 2001, after 15 years of negotiations, the world’s most populous country finally joined the world’s most important trade body. Yet China’s accession to the WTO, although hailed by some as signaling “a seismic shift in global marketing”, should nudge perceptive observers to look beyond the rhetoric and focus on the actions that will be needed to prosper in China’s complex market. Those who fail to do so will likely experience more pain than profit.

Far from being a signal that foreign companies can sweep into China and establish market dominance, WTO accession marks the first milestone in what promises to be a long and potentially grueling contest between foreign and local brands. (1) Foreign products were perceived to be inherently more desirable than local ones, even if they were less affordable. But a growing brand savvy among Chinese enterprises is rapidly eroding this perception, making it harder for foreign companies to establish and maintain leadership in China.

(2) Foreign companies will also have to adjust to the realities of being guests in a country undergoing profound social and economic stress. For the first time, Chinese enterprises will face full-blown international competition and closer regulatory scrutiny from entities located outside their own borders. (3) The huge tasks of restructuring state-owned enterprises and getting rid of the social welfare system of the past half century are certain to make the next 5 to 10 years difficult for many Chinese, no matter how smoothly the government manages the transition.

China represents a potential goldmine for the ambitious marketer. (4) In addition to having a large and growing number of middle-class consumers, it has shown a singular genius for weathering the financial and economic storms that have attacked other countries in Asia and throughout the industrialized world. Many foreign companies are thriving here. Starbucks, Kentucky Fried Chicken, and McDonald’s dot the maps of China’s major cities, while technology companies such as IBM, Nokia, and Motorola are among the most successful brands in their categories. The growth extends into the financial and professional services sectors as well.

(5) Yet foreign brands face a serious challenge in China, and for those who care to read them, the warning signs are already visible: strong local brands, Chinese nationalism, and the readiness of local firms to compete according to the new rules of the game.
PART VI WRITING (40 minutes, 15 points)
Directions: Write an essay of no less than 200 words on the topic given below. Use the proper space on your Answer Sheet II.

How to reduce traffic accidents.

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katherine

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dddddddddddddd

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好啊，呵呵

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地板发表于: 2007-06-07

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答案呢？

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地下室发表于: 2007-06-07

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楼主，有没有北大的考博英语试题？不胜感激

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谢谢了

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顶~~~~~~~~~~~~~~····

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