中国政法大学研究生院2000年博士研究生入学考试英语试题

中国政法大学研究生院2000年博士研究生入学考试英语试题

考试日期： 4月1日上午

TEST PAPER

Part 1 Listening Comprehension (25 minutes, 15 points)

Section A
Directions: In this section, you will hear 10 short statements. The statements will be spoken just once. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order to understand what the speaker says.
When you hear a statement, you will have a period of 15-20 seconds to rend the four sentences in you test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the problem and then mark your answer on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Listen to the following example:
You will hear:
He is no long living in Beijing.
You will rend:
[A] He’s been living in Beijing for a long time.
[B] He used to live in Beijing.
[C] He’s gone to Beijing for a short visit.
[D] He should stay longer in Beijing.
Sentence [B]“He used to live in Beijing”is closest in meaning to the statement“He is no longer living in Beijing.”Therefore you should choose answer [B].
Sample Answer
[A] [B] [C] [D]
1. [A] I thought the beach was closer.
[B] The beach is not very far away.
[C] I thought my father was at the beach.
[D] The beach is near my father’s house.
2. [A] The doctor recommended that you have cold soft drinks.
[B] Doctors would rather give advice about colds than about the flu.
[C] You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.
[D] Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
3. [A] When did winter begin?
[B] Has this been a typical winter?
[C] Has this been a typical winter?
[D] I don’t know what happened this winter.
4. [A] Classes were canceled yesterday at four, but they will meet tomorrow.
[B] Where did you get your information about tomorrow’s classes?
[C] Did tell you that I nearly forgot about tomorrow’s class?
[D] They canceled classes for tomorrow without notifying anyone.
5. [A] You’re looking for Paul aren’t you?
[B] I think we’re neighbors.
[C] Don’t you teach a course in the fall?
[D] You mustn’t leave things here.
6. [A] I’d like to see more pretty buildings.
[B] I’m planning on improving the building’s appearance.
[C] The building itself is a beautiful sight.
[D] The location of the building is lovely.
7. [A] Is it too warm?
[B] I’d prefer it to be warmer.
[C] Will it soon be warmer?
[D] It has been warmer in the past.
8. [A] I didn’t have your address, so I didn’t write you.
[B] I wrote you before, but you didn’t answer.
[C] I lost your address while I was in Chicago.
[D] I didn’t know I was going to Chicago, so I didn’t write you.
9. [A] She’s drinking punch.
[B] She’ s feeling bored.
[C] She’s selling tickets.
[D] She’s taking a trip.
10. [A] Bob doesn’t play tennis with Steven anymore.
[B] Bob is unusually good at tennis.
[C] Bob didn’t bring any matches to the tennis court.
[D] Bob’s tennis match was held in the evening.

Section B
Directions:
In this section you will hear 10 short conversations between two speaker. At the end of each conversation, there will be a question about what was said. You will hear the question only once. When you have heard the question, you will have a period of 15-20 seconds to read the four possible answers marked [A], [B], [C] and [D] and decide which is the best answer. Then mark your answer on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Example:
You will hear:
Man: Hello, Mary. This is John Smith at the office. Is Bill feeling any better today?
Woman: Oh, yes, John. He’s feeling much better now. But the doctor says he’ll have to stay in bed until Monday.
Third voice: Where is Bill now?
You will read:
[A] At the office. [B] On his way to work.
[C] Home in bed. [D] Away on vacation.
From the conversation, we know that Bill is sick and will have to remain in bed until Monday. The best answer, then, is [C],“Home in bed.”Therefore you should choose answer [C].
Sample Answer
[A] [B] [C] [D]

11. [A] He doesn’t have enough money to buy a printer now.
[B] He’s not sure how much a printer costs.
[C] He’ll buy a computer later this week.
[D] He lost the money he was saving.
12. [A] Wait to play until after his 9 o’clock class.
[B] Ask Carol to play tennis.
[C] Ask Carol if she’s going to class.
[D] Get a tennis lesson from Carol.
13. [A] They should ask for an increase in the budget.
[B] The calculations appear correct to her.
[C] She’ll try to see what method was used.
[D] They need to make a copy of the budget.
14. [A] The barbecue has been canceled.
[B] The weather will probably be cool.
[C] The man will not be able to attend the barbecue.
[D] Casual dress will be appropriate.
15. [A] He has received his telephone bill.
[B] His calls weren’t listed.
[C] The woman has already paid for her call.
[D] He has received a long distance call.
16. [A] The man should take the stereo back to the store.
[B] The man should refer to the instruction manual.
[C] She’ll go to the man’s house and help him.
[D] She’ll give the man her instruction manual.
17. [A] Discuss a magazine article with the woman.
[B] Help the woman find a mew doctor.
[C] Go to the store for some medicine.
[D] Buy the woman some magazines.
18. [A] The restaurant closes early during the week.
[B] He thought the woman’s birthday was next week.
[C] The woman should find out if she can reserve a table.
[D] He won’t be able to go with the woman.
19. [A] Join the dormitory council himself.
[B] Attend the next council himself.
[C] Persuade the other council members not to quit.
[D] Help the woman find someone to fill the vacancy.
20. [A] The film committee is full.
[B] Being on the committee requires a great deal of time.
[C] It is difficult to be selected for the committee.
[D] The man needs to sign up at another place.

Section C
Directions:
In this section you will hear several brief passages. You will hear them once only. After each one, you will hear some questions. You will hear each question once only. After you hear the question, you will have 15-20 seconds to choose the best answer from the four choices given Then mark your answer on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Questions 21-23 are based on the passage you have just heard.
21. [A] The problems caused by the Revolutionary War.
[B] How some people became rich in the late 1700’s.
[C] The importance of providing for a tax system in the Constitution.
[D] Motives for creating the United States Constitution.
22. [A] Tax collectors.
[B] The wealthy.
[C] Soldiers.
[D] State officials.
23. [A] They are not influenced by government policy.
[B] They are opinions that have no basis in fact.
[C] They are affected by the conditions of the time in which they are written.
[D] They would be more accurate if historians followed one ideology.

Questions 24-27 are based on the passage you have just heard.
24. [A] To explain a new requirement for graduation.
[B] To interest students in a community service project.
[C] To discuss the problems of elementary school students.
[D] To recruit elementary school teachers fro a special program.
25. [A] To find jobs for graduating students.
[B] To help education majors prepare for final exams.
[C] To offer tutorials to elementary school students.
[D] To provide funding for a community service project.
26. [A] He advises students participating in a special project.
[B] He teaches part-time in an elementary school.
[C] He observes elementary school students in the classroom.
[D] He helps students prepare their resumes.
27. [A] Contact the elementary school.
[B] Sign up for a special class.
[C] submit a resume to the dean.
[D] Talk to Professor Dodge.

Questions 28-30 are based on the passage you have just heard.
28. [A] Automobile safety.
[B] Increasing fuel efficiency.
[C] California’s pollution laws.
[D] Electric-powered cars.
29. [A] They are cheaper.
[B] They do not pollute as much.
[C] They are simpler to drive.
[D] They are faster.
30. [A] It is not comfortable.
[B] It is difficult to steer.
[C] It cannot go long distances without recharging.
[D] Its engine easily overheats.

Part II Reading Comprehension (50 minutes, 40 points)

Directions: In this part there are four passages followed by questions or unfinished statements, each with four suggested answers. Choose the one you think is the best answer. Then on your Answer Sheet, find the corresponding letter and mark your choice on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Questions 31 to 35 are based on the following passage:
There are two major systems of criminal procedure in the modem would-the adversarial and the inquisitorial. Both systems were historically preceded by the system of private vengeance in which the victim of a crime fashioned a remedy and administered it privately, either personally or through an agent.
The modem adversarial system is only one historical step removed from the private vengeance system and still retains some of its characteristic features. For example, even though the right to initiate legal action against a criminal has now been extended to all members of society (as represented by the office of the public prosecutor), and even though the police department has effectively assumed the pretrial investigative functions on behalf of the prosecution, the adversarial system still leaves the defendant to conduct his or her own pretrial investigation. The trial is viewed as a forensic duel between two adversaries, presided over by a judge who, at the start, has no knowledge of the investigative background of the case. In the final analysis the adversarial system of criminal procedure symbolizes and regularizes punitive combat.
By contrast, the inquisitorial system begins historically historically where the adversarial system stopped its development. It is two historical steps removed from the system of private vengeance. From the standpoint of legal anthropology, then, it is historically superior to the adversarial system. Under the inquisitorial system, the public prosecutor has the duty to investigate not just on behalf of society but also on behalf of the defendant. Additionally, the public prosecutor has the duty to present the court not only evidence that would convict the defendant, but also evidence that could prove the defendant’s innocence. The system mandates that both parties permit full pretrial-discovery of the evidence if their possession. Finally, an aspect of the system that makes the trial less like a duel between two adversarial parties is that the inquisitorial system mandates that the judge take an active part in the conduct of the trial, with a role that is both directive and protective.
Fact-finding is at the heart of the inquisitorial system. This system operates on the philosophical premise that in a criminal action the crucial factor is the body of facts, not the legal rule (in contrast to the adversarial system), and the goal of the entire procedure is to attempt to recreate, in the mind of the court, the commission of the alleged crime.
Because of the inquisitorial system’s thoroughness in conducting its pretrial investigation, it can be concluded that, if given the choice, a defendant who is innocent would prefer to be tried under the inquisitorial system, whereas a defendant who is guilty would prefer to be tried under the adversarial system.

31. It can be inferred from the passage that the crucial factor in a trial under the adversarial system is .
[A] rules of legality
[B] dramatic reenactments of the crime
[C] the victim’s personal pursuit of revenge
[D] the search for relevant facts

32. The author sees the judge’s primary role in a trial under the inquisitorial system as that of .
[A] passive observer
[B] biased referee
[C] uninvolved administrator
[D] involved manager

33. According to the passage, a central distinction between the system of private vengeance and the two modem criminal procedure systems was the shift in responsibility for initiating legal action against a criminal from the .
[A] defendant to the courts
[B] courts to a law enforcement agency
[C] defendant to the prosecutor
[D] victim to society

34. All of the following are characteristics of the inquisitorial system that the author cites EXCEPT.
[A] It is based on cooperation rather than conflict.
[B] It encourages full disclosure of evidence.
[C] It requires that the judge play an active role in the conduct of the trial.
[D] It places the defendant in charge of his or her defense.

35. The author’s attitude toward the inquisitorial system can best be described as .
[A] doubtful that its judges can be both directive and protective
[B] wary bout its downplay of legal rules
[C] optimistic that it will replace the adversarial system
[D] satisfied that it has potential for uncovering the relevant facts in a case

Questions 36 to 40 are based on the following passage:
The labor force is often organized as if workers had no family responsibilities. Preschool-age children need full-time care; children in primary school need care after school and during school vacations. Although day-care services can resolve some scheduling conflicts between home and office, workers cannot always find or afford suitable care. Even when they obtain such care, parents must still cope with emergencies, such as illnesses, that keep children at home. Moreover, children need more than tending, they also need meaningful time with their parents, Conventional full-time workdays, especially when combined with unavoidable household duties, are too inflexible for parents with primary child-care responsibility.
Although a small but increasing number of working men are single parents, those barriers against successful participation in the labor market that are related to primary child-care responsibilities mainly disadvantage women Even in families where both parents work, cultural pressures are traditionally much greater on mothers than on fathers to bear the primary child-rearing responsibilities.
In reconciling child-rearing responsibilities with participation in the labor market, many working mothers are forced to make compromises. For example, approximately one-third of all working mothers are employed only part-time, even though part-time jobs are dramatically underpaid and often less desirable in comparison to full-time employment. Even though part-time work is usually available only in occupations offering opportunity for advancement or self-enrichment, such employment does allow many women the time and flexibility to fulfill their family duties, but only at the expense of the advantages associated with full-time employment.
Moreover, even mothers with full-time employment must compromise opportunities in order to adjust to barriers against parents in the labor market. Many choose jobs entailing little challenge or responsibility or those offering flexible scheduling, often available only in poorly paid positions, while other working mothers, although willing and able to assume as much responsibility as people without children, find that their need to spend regular and predictable time with their children inevitably causes them to lose career opportunities to those without such demands. Thus, women in education are more likely to become teachers than school administrators, whose more conventional full-time work schedules do not. correspond to the schedules of school-age children, while female lawyers are more likely to practice law in trusts and estates, where they can control heir work schedules, than in litigation, where they cannot Nonprofessional women are concentrated in secretarial work and department store sales, where their absences can be covered easily by substitutes and where they can enter and leave the work force with little loss, since the jobs offer so little personal gain Indeed, as long as the labor market remains hostile to parents, and family roles continue to be allocated on the basis of gender, women will be seriously disadvantaged in that labor market.

36. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
[A] Current trends in the labor force indicate that working parents, especially women may not always need to choose between occupational and child-care responsibilities.
[B] Although single parents who work have to balance parental and career demands, single mothers suffer resulting employment disadvantages that single fathers can almost always avoid.
[C] Although child-care responsibilities disadvantage many women in the labor force, professional women (such as teachers and lawyers) are better able to overcome this problem than are nonprofessional women.
[D] Traditional work schedules are too inflexible to accommodate the child-care responsibilities of many parents, a fact that severely disadvantages women in the labor force.

37. Which one of the following statements about part-time work can be inferred from the information presented in the passage?
[A] Part-time work generally offers fewer opportunities for advancement to working mothers than to women generally.
[B] Part-time work, in addition to having relatively poor wages, often requires that employees work during holidays, when their children are out of school.
[C] Part-time employment, despite its disadvantages, provides working mothers demands of caring for children.
[D] Many mothers with primary child-care responsibility choose part-time jobs in order to better exploit full-time career opportunities after their children are grown.

38. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about working fathers in two-parent families?
[A] They are equally burdened by the employment disadvantages placed upon all parents—male and female—in the labor market.
[B] They are so absorbed in their jobs that they often do not see the justice going on around them.
[C] They are shielded by the traditional allocation of family roles from many of the pressures associated with child-rearing responsibilities.
[D] They help compound the inequities in the labor market by keeping women from competing with men for career opportunities.

39. According to the passage, many working parents may be forced to make any of the following types of career decisions EXCEPT.
[A] declining professional positions for nonprofessional ones, which typically have less conventional work schedules.
[B] taking jobs with limited responsibility, and thus more limited career opportunities, in order to have a more flexible schedule.
[C] pursuing career specialization that allow them to control their work schedules instead of pursuing a more desirable specialization in the same field.
[D] limiting the career potential of one parent, often the mother, who assumes greater child-care responsibility.

40. Which one of the following statements would most appropriately continue the discussion at the end of the passage?
[A] At the same time, most men will remain better able to enjoy the career and salary opportunities offered by the labor market.
[B] On the other hand, salary levels may become more equitable between men and women even if the other career opportunities remain more accessible to men than to women.
[C] On the contrary, men with primary child-rearing responsibilities will continue to enjoy more advantages in the workplace than their female counterparts.
[D] Thus, institutions in society that favor men over women will continue to widen the gap between the career opportunities for men and for women.

Questions 41 to 45 are based on the following passage:
The Constitution of the United States does not explicitly define the extent of the president’s authority to involve United States troops in conflicts with other nations in the absence of a declaration of a declaration of war Instead, the question of the President’s authority in this matter falls in the hazy area of concurrent power, where authority is not expressly allocated to either the President or the Congress. The Constitution gives Congress the basic power to declare war, as well as the authority to raise and support armies and a navy, enact regulations for the control of the military ,and provide fro the common defense. The President, on the other hand, in addition to being obligated to execute the laws of the land, including commitments negotiated by defense treaties, is named commander in chief of the armed forces and is empowered to appoint envoys and make treaties with the consent of the Senate. Although this allocation of powers does not expressly address the use of armed forces short of a declared war, the spirit of the Constitution at least requires that Congress should be involved in the decision to deploy troops, and in passing the War Powers Resolution of 1973, Congress has at last reclaimed a role in such decisions.
Historically, United States Presidents have not waited for the approval of Congress before involving United States troops in conflicts in which a state of war was not declared. One scholar has identified 199 military engagements that occurred without the consent of Congress, ranging from Jefferson’s conflict with the Barbary pirates to Nixon’s invasion of Cambodia during the Vietnam conflict, which President Nixon argued was justified because his role as commander in chief allowed him almost unlimited discretion over the deployment of troops. However, the Vietnam conflict, never a declared war, represented a turning point in Congress’s tolerance of presidential discretion in the deployment of troops in undeclared wars. Galvanized by the human and monetary cost of those hostilities and showing a new determination to fulfill its proper role, Congress enacted the War Powers Resolution of 1973, a statute designed to ensure that the collective judgment of both Congress and the President would be applied to the involvement of United States troops in foreign conflicts.
The resolution required the President, in the absence of a declaration of war, to consult with Congress“in every possible instance”before introducing forces and to report to Congress within 48 hours after the forces have actually been deployed. Most important, the resolution allows Congress to veto the involvement once it begins, and requires the President, in most cases, to end the involvement within 60 days unless Congress specifically authorizes the military operation to continue. In its final section, by declaring that the resolution not intended to alter the constitutional authority of either Congress or the President, the resolution asserts that congressional involvement in decisions to use armed force is in accord with the intent and spirit of the Constitution.

41. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with .
[A] showing how the Vietnam conflict led to a new interpretation of the Constitution’s provisions for use of the military
[B] arguing that the War Powers Resolution of 1973 is an attempt to reclaim a share of constitutionally concurrent power that had been usurped by the President
[C] outlining the history of the struggle between President and Congress for control of the military
[D] explaining how the War Powers Resolution of 1973 alters the Constitution to eliminate an overlap of authority

42. With regard to the use of United States troops in a foreign conflict without a formal declaration of war by the United States, the author believes that the United States Constitution does which one of the following?
[A] assumes that the President and Congress will agree on whether troops should be used
[B] provides a clear-cut division of authority between the President and Congress in the decision the use troops
[C] assigns a greater role to the Congress than to the President in deciding whether troops should be used
[D] intends that both the President and Congress should be involved in the decision to use troops

43. The passage suggests that each of the following contributed to Congress’s enacting the War Powers Resolution of 1973 EXCEPT .
[A] a change in the attitude in Congress toward exercising its role in the use of armed forces
[B] the failure of Presidents to uphold commitments specified in defense treaties
[C] Congress’s desire to be consulted concerning United States military actions instigated by the President
[D] the amount of money spent on recent conflicts waged without a declaration of war

41. It can be inferred from the passage that the War Powers Resolution of 1973 is applicable only in“the absence of a declaration of war”because .
[A] Congress has enacted other laws that already set out presidential requirements for situations in which war has been declared
[B] by virtue of declaring war, Congress already implicitly participates in the decision to deploy troops
[C] the President generally receives broad public support during wars that have been formally declared by Congress.
[D] the United States Constitution already explicitly defines he reporting and consulting requirements of the President in cases in which war has been declared

45. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements regarding the invasion of Cambodia?
[A] Because it was undertaken without the consent of Congress, it violated the intent and spirit of the Constitution.
[B] Because it galvanized support for the War Powers. Resolution, it contributed indirectly to the expansion of presidential authority.
[C] Because it was necessitated by a defense treaty, it required the consent of Congress.
[D] It served as a precedent for a new interpretation of the constitutional limits on the President’s authority to deploy troops.

Questions 46 to 50 are based on the following passage:
In 1887 the Dawes Act legislated wide-scale private ownership of reservation lands in the United States for Native Americans. The act allotted plots of 80 acres to each Native American adult. However, the Native Americans were not granted outright title to their lands. The act defined each grant as a “trust patent,”meaning that the Bureau of Indian Affairs (BLA), the governmental agency in charge of administering policy regarding Native Americans, would hold the allotted land in trust for 25 years, during which time the Native Americans owners could use, but not alienate (sell) the land. After the 25-year period, the Native American allottee would receive a “fee patent”awarding full legal ownership of the land.
Two main reasons were advanced for the restriction on the Native Americans’ ability to sell their lands. First, it was claimed that free alienability would lead to immediate transfer of large amounts of former reservation land to non-Native Americans, consequently threatening the traditional way of life on those reservations. A second objection to free alienation was that Native Americans were unaccustomed to, and did not desire, a system of private land-ownership. Their custom, it was said, favored communal use of land.
However, both of these arguments bear only on the transfer of Native American lands to non-Native Americans; neither offers a reason for prohibiting Native Americas from transferring land among themselves. Selling land to each other would not threaten the Native American culture. Additionally, if communal land use remained preferable to Native Americans after allotment, free alienability would have allowed allottees to sell their lands back to the tribe.
When stated rationales for government policies prove empty, using an interest-group model often provides an explanation. While neither Native Americans nor the potential non-Native American purchasers benefited from the restraint on alienation contained in the Dawes Act, one clearly defined group did benefit the BIA bureaucrats. It has been convincingly demonstrated that bureaucrats seek to maximize the size of their staffs and their budgets in order to compensate for the lack of other sources of fulfillment, such as power and prestige. Additionally, politicians tend to favor the growth of governmental bureaucracy because such growth provides increased opportunity for the exercise of political patronage. The restraint on alienation vastly increased the amount of work, and hence the budgets, necessary to implement the statute. Until allotment was ended in 1934, granting fee patents and leasing Native American lands were among the principal activities of the United States government. One hypothesis, then, for the temporary restriction on alienation in the Dawes Act is that it reflected a compromise between non-Native Americans favoring immediate alienability so they could purchase land and the BIA bureaucrats who administered the privatization system.

46. Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
[A] United States government policy toward Native Americans has tended to disregard their needs and consider instead the needs of non-Native American purchasers of land.
[B] In order to preserve the unique way of life on Native American reservations, use of Native American lands must be communal rather than individual.
[C] The Dawes Act’s restriction on the right of Native Americans to sell their land may have been implemented primarily to serve the interests of politicians and bureaucrats.
[D] The clause restricting free alienability in the Dawes Act greatly expanded United States governmental activity in the area of land administration.

47. Which one of the following statements concerning the reason for the end of allotment, if true, would provide the most support for the author’s view of politicians?
[A] Politicians realized that allotment was damaging the Native American way of life.
[B] Politicians decided that allotment would be more congruent with the Native American custom of communal land use.
[C] Politicians believed that allotment’s continuation would not enhance their opportunities to exercise patronage.
[D] Politicians felt that he staff and budgets of the BIA had grown too large.

48. Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
[A] The passage of a law if analyzed in detail, the benefits and drawbacks of one of its clauses are studied, and a film assessment of the law is offered.
[B] A law is examined, the political and social backgrounds of one of its clauses are characterized, and the permanent effects of the law are studied.
[C] A law is described, the rationale put forward for one of its clauses I outlined and dismissed, and a different rationale for the clause is presented.
[D] The legal status of an ethnic group is examined with respect to issues of landownership and commercial autonomy, and the benefits to rival groups due to that status are explained.

49. The author’s attitude toward the reasons advanced for the restriction on alienability in the Dawes Act at the time of its passage can best be described as .
[A] completely credulous
[B] basically indecisive
[C] mildly questioning
[D] highly skeptical

50. It can be inferred from the passage that which one of the following was true of Native American life immediately before passage of the Dawes Act?
[A] Most Native Americans supported themselves through farming.
[B] Not many Native Americans personally owned the land on which they lived.
[C] The land on which most Native Americans lives had been bought from their tribes.
[D] Few native Americans had much contact with their non-Native American neighbors.

Part III Vocabulary and Grammatical Structure (25 minutes, 15 points)
Section A
Directions: There are 15 sentences in this section. Each sentence has a word or phrase underlines. There are four words or phrases beneath each sentence. Choose the one word or phrase which would best keep the meaning of the original sentence if it were substituted for the underlined part. Mark you answer on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Example:
The initial step is often the most difficult.
[A] quickest [B] longest [C] last [D] first
The best answer is [D] because“first” has the same meaning as“initial”in the sentence. Therefore you should choose [D].
Sample Answer
[A] [B] [C] [D]
51. After listening to the testimony, the members of the jury delivered their verdict.
[A] foreman
[B] cross-examination
[C] sentence
[D] decision

52. The representative was asked to verifv his earlier statement.
[A] confirm
[B] withdraw
[C] repeat
[D] modify

53. Justice Douglas often casts a dissenting opinion.
[A] concurring
[B] resenting
[C] consenting
[D] opposite

54. Willia Cather procured the inspiration for her fictional characters from the Nebraska farmers among whom she was raised.
[A] obtained
[B] endorsed
[C] deposed
[D] elevated

55. When a man commits a major crime which includes a lesser offense, or commits a felony which includes a tort against a private person, the latter is merged in the former.
[A] closed
[B] verged
[C] combined
[D] diverged
56. Do you think he will relinquish his sent in the Senate?
[A] admonish
[B] give up
[C] cede
[D] disregard

57. To reveal a military secret is tantamount to treason.
[A] unquestionably
[B] equivalent
[C] paramount
[D] exactly

58. The employees make inordinate demands.
[A] regulate
[B] continuous
[C] excessive
[D] odious

59. Justices of the peace have jurisdiction over the trials of some civil suits and of criminal cases involving minor offenses.
[A] supremacy
[B] obedience
[C] guidance
[D] authority

60. The United States Congress and the state legislatures enact thousands of laws each year.
[A] draft
[B] debate
[C] Act of State doctrine, as invoked by foreign governments to evade liability for injure
[D] Concept that a court should dismiss cases where there is no true dispute

61. After 1850, various states in the United States began to pass compulsory school attendance laws.
[A] harsh
[B] mandatory
[C] diversified
[D] complicated

62. The Bill of Rights is a series of prohibitions on the enactment by Congress of laws infringing certain rights.
[A] domestic federal legislation
[B] protection against interference of rights by private individuals
[C] the first ten amendments to the U. S. Constitution
[D] the provision granting individual states their inherent rights

63. After judgment becomes final, if the losing party does not voluntarily comply with it, the judgment creditor will apply for writ of execution.
[A] understand
[B] obey
[C] improve with
[D] agree with

64. In many cases, there is no difficulty in identifying the time and form of acceptance.
[A] an exception to a general rule of contract law
[B] a counteroffer that changes the terms of an offer
[C] an agreement to accept the terms of an“adhesion contract”
[D] a manifestation of assent by the offeree to be bound to the terms of the offertory

65. Class actions might be used in lawsuits arising out of the use of a manufactured produce which has harmed persons who have used the product.
[A] A lawsuit filed by one person on his own behalf
[B] A lawsuit filed by two person for their sole benefit
[C] amend
[D] pass

Section B
Directions: There are 15 sentences in this section. Beneath each sentence there are four words or phrases marked [A], [B], [C] and [D]. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Mark you answer on the Answer Sheet by drawing with a pencil a single line through the center in the brackets.

Example:
I have been to the Great Wall three times 1979.
[A] from [B] after [C] for [D] since
The sentence should read,“I have been to the Great Wall three times since 1979.” Therefore you should choose [D].
Sample Answer
[A] [B] [C] [D]

66. Certain layers of the atmosphere have special names .
[A] which indicated their character properties
[B] whose characteristic properties are indicating
[C] what characterize their indicated properties
[D] that indicate their characteristic properties

67. Although Nina Putnam wrote stories and poems and poems as a child, she was twenty-three.
[A] her first real success did not come until
[B] her real first success came until not
[C] since her first real success did not come until
[D] not until her first real success

68. Alfred Adams has not .
[A] lived lonelinessly in times previous
[B] never before lived sole
[C] ever lived alone before
[D] before lived without the company of his friends

69. Tungsten, a gray metal with the , is used to form the wires in electric light bulbs.
[A] point at which it melts is the highest of any metal
[B] melting point is the highest of any metal
[C] highest melting point of any metal
[D] metal’s highest melting point of any

70. An explosion is really a sudden increase in volume .
[A] rapid burning causes it
[B] and caused by rapid burning
[C] causing its burning to be rapid
[D] caused by rapid burning

71. The Earth attracts bodies toward its center, all bodies fall in a direct line toward that point.
[A] that
[B] so
[C] however
[D] nevertheless

72. A closed shop exists in a company by contract to hire only union members.
[A] is required
[B] required it
[C] that is required
[D] that it is required

73. Bronze with use or grow brittle quickly, as copper does.
[A] not bending
[B] does not bend
[C] that does not bend
[D] to not bend

74. David G. Faragut to become an admiral, a rank created for him by Congress in 1866.
[A] the first American was an officer
[B] the first officer was an American
[C] was the first American officer
[D] first the American officer was

75. on the xylophone by striking the bone with hard mallets.
[A] Whenever tones produced by players
[B] Players produce tones
[C] Tones are produced by players
[D] Whereas players produce tones

76. All bones have an exterior layer, termed the cortex, that is smooth, dense, continuous, and .
[A] of varying thickness
[B] varied thickness
[C] it thickness varies
[D] its thickness varying

77. Liberals tend to favor do conservatives.
[A] more than immediate social change
[B] change more immediate than social
[C] more immediate social change than
[D] social change more than immediate

78. A widespread species, roundworms even thrive on the peaks of mountains and .
[A] at the bottoms of the oceans
[B] there are the bottoms of the oceans
[C] the bottoms of the oceans do
[D] which the bottoms of the oceans

79. rug weavers, tapestry weavers face the back of the fabric as they work.
[A] Do not like
[B] No likeness to
[C] Unlike
[D] Dislike

80. The impact of Thoreau’s“On the Civil Disobedience”might not have been so far-reaching for Elizabeth Peabody, who dared to publish the controversial essay.
[A] it not having been
[B] it is not being
[C] had it not been
[D] is it hot being

Part Ⅳ Translation (50 minutes, 20 points)

Section A
Directions: Put the following passage into Chinese: Write your translation on the Answer Sheet Remember to write it clearly.

Criminal law is a very broad and complex subject. This complexity relates to the nature of crime. Crimianl acts vary in seriousness; the same act may be a criminal offence in one country and not in another. Equally, the same act can be both a offence and a civil wrong.
Most people have heard of the saying that“ignorance of he law is no defence”which is the result of another well-known phrase or saying that“everyone is presumed to know the law.”Unlike many maxims which have no basis in reality, these do represent the very harsh rule in criminal haw that it is no defence to a criminal charge that the person charged was unaware that the act he was performing was a criminal offence. Nor would it make any difference to his guilt or innocence that he had consulted a lawyer who had told him that there was no such offence.
Criminal law tends to represent society’s attitude towards conduct. It is a decision that certain conduct should not be permitted and that it should not be left to the“victims”of this conduct to bring the matter to court. A good example of this is the law relating to brothels(妓院). If you find that a brothel has been opened up in the house next door, you can clearly sue its owners for a civil action in nuisance, but the law takes the view that this is a situation in which the private citizen should not be forced to make the running. It is therefore made a criminal offence and the state, through the police force, can take action in the criminal courts to stop the activity.
The question, however, of what acts can be followed by criminal proceedings can only be answered by reference to the law as laid down by parliament in statutes and regulations, and in the decisions of the courts over the last few centuries. Of course most people know that it is a crime to kill, rape, steal, injure and equally that it is not an offence to wear bow ties. In the middle however is a great band of conduct over which various societies take differing views. Thus it is possible to take widely differing views on such matters as homosexual activity, incest drug possession and adultery. But in relation to what we can, for the moment, call real crimes such as murder, rape, assault, theft, and damage to property, most people have a reasonable idea of what activity is or is not criminal.

Section B
Directions: Translate the following sentences into English. Write your translation on the Answer Sheet. Remember to write it clearly.

法律是若干控制手段之一，大概没有哪个持久的社会是没有法律体系的。法律是当权者认为要社会稳定必须加强领导而采取的措施。一项法律就是当局加强领导的一项规定，谁违反了就要受处分。规定和处分具有约束力是社会所公认的。实施法律的意思就是社会同意在执行法律时若有必要可以利用物质力量。
不管在什么地方，法律的作用都是维护社会内部的秩序，使每个人都知道自己有什么权利、特权与义务；这当然也含有承认别人的权利与义务的意思。困此，法律的作用是（1）处理个人与个人之间和个人与集体之间的关系。（2）执行得到社会同意的命令；（3）公正地调停个人之间的争执和处理触犯社会的行为；（4）调整法律规定以适应生活情况的变化。

Part V Writing (30 minutes, 10 points)

Directions: In this part you will need to analyze the issue presented below and explain your views on it. The question has no“correct”answer. Instead you should consider various perspectives as you develop your own position on the issue.
Read the statement and directions, and then make any notes in your lest booklet that will help you plan your response. Begin writing your response on the separate Answer Sheet.

“In some countries, television and radio programs are carefully censored for offensive language and behavior. In other countries, there is little or no censorship.”

In your view, to what extent should government or any other group be able to censor television or radio programs? Explain, giving relevant reasons and/ or examples to support your position.

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